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As we have seen, there is nothing about language as such that makes linguis
As we have seen, there is nothing about language as such that makes linguis
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2024-11-09
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问题
As we have seen, there is nothing about language as such that
makes linguistic identity coextensive with national identity. "If he
speaks French, he is by any means necessarily French." French is【M1】______
not the private property of Frenchmen, as English of English【M2】______
people. This should be obvious when one reflects that English is
the mother-tongue in Canada, the United States, UK, Australia,
New Zealand, and many other areas of the world. Yet many of us
still half-consciously feel that when anyone no other than an【M3】______
Englishman uses English, we have a special right to criticise his
usage because he has privileged to handle something that is in the【M4】______
Englishman’s gift. We feel that he must necessarily look us for a【M5】______
"standard", because it is "our" language. It is reasonable to regard【M6】______
any language as the property of a particular nation,and with no
language is it more irrational than with English. This is not to say
that English is used by a great number of speakers than any other【M7】______
language: it is easily outnumbered in this respect with Chinese.
Whereas it is the most international of languages.【M8】______
To people in Africa or Pakistan or Chile, English is the obvious
foreign language to master, not merely because it is the native
language in Great Britain and the United States, but because it
provides a readiest access to the cream of world scholarship and to【M9】______
the bulk of world trade. It is understanding more widely than any【M10】______
other language. [br] 【M4】
选项
答案
has∧一been
解析
语法错误。privilege作名词时,多为可数名词,前需加上a或者变为复数形式privileges。此处privilege作动词,且主语he在前,应该用被动语态,表示“被赋予特权”,由于此处是因,前半句是果,动作发生在前半句之前,所以用现在完成时。需加上been。
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