As we have seen, there is nothing about language as such that makes linguis

游客2023-12-01  21

问题     As we have seen, there is nothing about language as such that
makes linguistic identity coextensive with national identity. "If he
speaks French, he is by any means necessarily French." French is【M1】______
not the private property of Frenchmen, as English of English【M2】______
people. This should be obvious when one reflects that English is
the mother-tongue in Canada, the United States, UK, Australia,
New Zealand, and many other areas of the world. Yet many of us
still half-consciously feel that when anyone no other than an【M3】______
Englishman uses English, we have a special right to criticise his
usage because he has privileged to handle something that is in the【M4】______
Englishman’s gift. We feel that he must necessarily look us for a【M5】______
"standard", because it is "our" language. It is reasonable to regard【M6】______
any language as the property of a particular nation,and with no
language is it more irrational than with English. This is not to say
that English is used by a great number of speakers than any other【M7】______
language: it is easily outnumbered in this respect with Chinese.
Whereas it is the most international of languages.【M8】______
    To people in Africa or Pakistan or Chile, English is the obvious
foreign language to master, not merely because it is the native
language in Great Britain and the United States, but because it
provides a readiest access to the cream of world scholarship and to【M9】______
the bulk of world trade. It is understanding more widely than any【M10】______
other language. [br] 【M2】

选项

答案 as—nor/neither

解析 语法错误。这里把英语与法语类比,说明“语言不应是使用者的私有财产”。前一个分句提到“就像法语不是法国人的私有财产”,接下来是说“英语也不是英国人的私有财产”,因此这里不用表示肯定的as结构,而用表示否定意义的nor/neither进行倒装。
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